First Corinthians 7:39 - 40
If A Widow Remarries,
Must She Only Marry A Christian?
Brian R. Kenyon

Next to the "not under bondage" issue (1 Cor. 7:15), this section on widows marrying "only in the Lord" is probably the most controversial section in First Corinthians 7. As with any other passage in the Bible, popular opinions, strong emotions, and/or biases should not determine its meaning. Rather, we should allow the passage itself, along with its context and the total teaching of the Bible, to determine its meaning. Such is the basis of the study below.

The Verses in Their Context

As Paul closes this important chapter concerning marriage, he says to the widows, "The wife is bound by the law as long as her husband liveth; but if her husband be dead, she is at liberty to be married to whom she will; only in the Lord. 40But she is happier if she so abide, after my judgment: and I think also that I have the Spirit of God" (1 Cor. 7:39-40). Paul reminds us that marriage is to be permanent (cf. 1 Cor. 7:10-11; Gen. 2:18-25; Mt. 19:3-9). A wife is "bound" to her husband as long as he lives! As pointed out in earlier articles, "bound" is from the Greek word (deo), which means to be tied. "Under bondage" (1 Cor. 7:15) is from a different word (douloo), and means to be enslaved. Marriage was never intended by God to be a slave relationship (cf. 1 Cor. 7:3-5). If a wife's husband dies, then she is free from that marriage and may remarry with God's approval, if she so chooses (cf. Rom. 7:2-3). However, says Paul, "she is happier if she so abide" as a widow (unmarried). Again, the "present distress" is why Paul recommends remaining unmarried throughout this chapter (1 Cor. 7:26, 28). Although this is Paul's judgment (cf. 1 Cor. 7:25), he is an inspired apostle, and it must be taken seriously!

Is "Only in the Lord" The Same as
"Only a Christian"?

In English, "only in the Lord" can modify either the person whom she marries (adjectival phrase) or the action of marriage itself (adverbial phrase). Thus, there are basically two views on "only in the Lord" in this passage. First, those who affirm that it modifies "whom she will" (adjectival phrase) teach that the widow is free to remarry only a Christian. "In the Lord" thus refers to a Christian (cf. Rom. 16:11; Eph. 6:21; see also the term "in Christ," Rom. 6:3-4; Gal. 3:27). This is perhaps the more natural view on first reading and has much support through the centuries. Second, those who affirm that it modifies "to be married" (adverbial phrase) teach that the widow is free to remarry only in harmony with the Lord's will. Thus, "in the Lord" modifies the "action" of marriage rather than the "who" of marriage. "In the Lord" is definitely used this way (as an adverb) elsewhere (Eph. 6:1; Col. 3:18). The widow, therefore, can remarry only one who is Scripturally eligible (i.e., one who has never been married, one whose spouse has died, or one who is innocent of fornication in a Scriptural divorce).

Fortunately, the original language of the New Testament sheds much light so that we can know the truth. Like English, Greek adjectives modify nouns and pronouns (i.e., "whom she will"), whereas adverbs modify verbs (i.e., "to be married"). In First Corinthians 7:39, the Greek adjective translated "only" (from monos) is in the neuter form (monon). In Greek, an adjective must agree in gender with the noun or pronoun that it modifies. A neuter adjective does not modify a masculine pronoun. "Whom," in "whom she will," is obviously masculine. According to one Greek authority, when a Greek adjective is used in the neuter gender without there being a neuter noun or pronoun, then it is being "used as an adverb...limiting the action or state to the one designated by the verb."1 Thus, "only in the Lord" modifies the "act," not the "who," of marriage!

In Harmony with the Context and
Total Teaching of the Bible

Not only does the Greek language indicate that "only in the Lord" is being used as an adverbial phrase (thus modifying "to be married," rather than "whom she will"), this also harmonizes best with the universal application of God's law on marriage. To be sure, all Christians (not just widows) should seek to marry Christians (cf. Mt. 5:13-16; 6:33; Col. 3:1-2). Those whom we marry have a great influence upon us, and may ultimately affect our eternal destiny (cf. 1 Kgs. 16:31; 21:25). However, it is possible that no Christian spouse is available, and if one cannot exercise the necessary self-control, he or she must marry (1 Cor. 7:2, 9).

Furthermore, the "only a Christian" view must assume that the widow in verse 39 is a Christian. However, the text nowhere states such. The only place in this chapter where Paul distinguishes believers and unbelievers is in verses 12-15. Would we say the husband in verse 3 is limited to only a Christian husband? Is the wife in verse 4 only a Christian wife? Are the "unmarried and widows" in verse 8 only Christians? Of course not to all of these! Then why would we assume that the widow in verse 39 is Christian? The "widow can marry only a Christian" view actually makes this verse a "covenant passage." That is, it only applies to Christians. Yet, the Bible teaches that God's laws of marriage apply to all people, whether or not they are Christians (Gen. 2:24; Mt. 19:3-9). The view that "only in the Lord" modifies the action of marriage, thus allowing the widow to marry only one who is eligible, can be universally applied to all widows, Christian or not! If Paul meant for widows to marry only Christians, why did he not tell Timothy (1 Tim. 5:14)? Besides, even if the "only a Christian" view were correct, why would it not be qualified by the "present distress"?

Some might object by referring to Paul's statement that he had a right to "lead about a sister, a wife, as well as other apostles" (1 Cor. 9:5). This statement, however, must be considered in the context of Paul's right to be supported by the church as he labors in the Gospel. It would be inappropriate for the church to support a non-believing wife to labor in the Gospel. Only the faithful can teach the faith faithfully! Again, it is best to marry a Christian when possible, but one may not always be available (cf. 1 Cor. 7:2, 9).

Let us be sure that we only bind where God has bound and loose where God has loosed!